Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 14:58
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Can a cop pull you over walking home asking why you are out so late?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.